곤곤곤 [529107] · MS 2014 · 쪽지

2014-12-07 16:41:53
조회수 439

[영어] 18-9. 빈칸

게시글 주소: https://19pass.orbi.kr/0005198494

It is common sense for you to actually wonder at least once in your lifetime - why does trade occur between rich and poor countries regarding the two countries produce two or more of the same good? Let's say the Rich and Poor [II](A)_________ eight apples, four oranges and six apples, two oranges, respectively. The Rich has absolute advantage on both apples and oranges, two more of each. If we look at this situation from an [II](B)_________ point of view, no trade should occur because the Rich can produce sufficient enough goods to satisfy themselves. However, trade does happen, as it does in reality. The reason to this can be found by looking at it in the comparative scope. Comparatively, the Rich will be sacrificing two apples for one orange or half an orange for one apple. The Poor will be sacrificing three apples for one orange or a third of an orange for one apple. So, it will be sensible [I]________________, therefore resulting in [II](C)_________.
[I]
.1. for the Rich to produce oranges and the Poor to produce apples
.2. for the Rich to produce apples and the Poor to produce oranges
.3. for both the Rich and Poor to produce apples and oranges
.4. for the Rich to produce their comparative advantage and the Poor to produce their absolute advantage
.5. for the Rich to produce their absolute advantage and the Poor to produce their comparative advantage
[II]
       (A)             (B)              (C)
.1. produce      absolute       trade
.2. produce      absolute      no trade
.3. produce    comparative     trade
.4.   trade       comparative   no trade
.5.   trade       comparative     trade

http://m.blog.naver.com/07kimsg/220169242633

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